If Homer talks about the dark-wine sea, it seems he also talks about the "blue eyebrows of Poseidon". You can read here about Homer's colorful descriptions that helped orators remember the verses of his poems.
κυανό is known to be "blue" for ancient greeks and became "cyan" in english.
In this book about Homer writing, κυανό entry represents "smalt, blue ...
The first claim is based on the research of Berlin and Kay "Basic Color Terms", which posits the hypothesis that languages evolve colour terms in the following order, and therefore that ancient languages did not possess separate terms for blue and green:
Stage I: Dark-cool and light-warm
Stage II: Red
Stage III: Either green or yellow
Stage IV: Both green ...
Ancient Hebrew has the word תכלת for blue (or more specifically, azure), as attested to in the Bible:
Speak to the children of Israel and you shall say to them that they shall make for themselves fringes on the corners of their garments, throughout their generations, and they shall affix a thread of sky blue [wool] on the fringe of each ...
Yes, from the OED blog:
The Oxford English Dictionary traces singular they back to 1375, where it appears in the medieval romance William and the Werewolf. Except for the old-style language of that poem, its use of singular they to refer to an unnamed person seems very modern. Here’s the Middle English version: ‘Hastely hiȝed eche . . . þei neyȝþed so ...
Most likely no. X is one of many symbols used for unknowns throughout the history of mathematics, and comes from a notation in the 1600's that used several other letters alongside X. Some Arab mathematicians used the Arabic word for 'thing' to represent an unknown, however it was several hundred years between that and X becoming popular, with many other ...
This addresses the second claim.
There are 4 types of photoreceptive neurons in your eye. One is the rod, which is sensitive to green but creates a black/white percept (for "scotopic" or night-adjusted vision) and the other 3 are cones with various types of rhodopsin, a receptor that is sensitive to photons.
In a normal, unmutated (non-colorblind) person, ...
Concerning the second claim, the differences seem to be cultural/linguistic, not genetic according to this article from the American Psychological Association:
The study tracked color naming, comprehension and memory in two populations over three years. Researchers led by Debi Roberson, PhD, of the University of Essex, compared young English children with ...
I found the following words in the Latin dictionary at http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/
caesĭtĭus (-cĭus ), a, um, adj. id., I. [select] bluish, dark blue:
“linteolum,” Plaut. Ep 2, 2, 46; cf. Doed. Syn. III. p. 17.
cūmātĭlis (cȳm- ), e, adj. from κῦμα, with the Lat. ending ilis. I.
Adj., of the waves: “deus,” i. e. Neptune, Commod. 10, 1.— B. Esp.,
My first thought after seeing your question was surprise that it was being asked, as I had heard the claim previously, and found it so much in agreement with my experience that I had assumed it true. However the evidence is actually rather more interesting than I would have guessed.
1. There are fewer fluent bilinguals than monolinguals in ...
To clarify, I see four claims you are skeptical about:
Ancient people literally were not able to perceive the color blue.
The linked article states:
Greeks lived in a murky and muddy world,
devoid of color, mostly black and white and metallic, with
occasional flashes of red or yellow. Gladstone thought this was perhaps something unique to ...
Lapis lazuli is a blue semi-precious stone that was mined in Mesopotamia in ancient times as early as the 7th millenium BC, see
I'm afraid I can't give you a peer-reviewed answer. However, the use of the singular "they" by Shakespeare is well documented.
NYUlocal's discussion of the Swedish "hen", also claims the singular "they" was used in The Canterbury Tales, Hamlet, Mansfield Park, and The Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
More to the point, in &...
The question could be answered by comparison of the King James Bible (1611 version) with the Wycliffe Bible (1382) but would require some considerable research.
Here are two examples I found myself, which indicate that 'they/their/them' was not used singularly prior to the 16th century:
2 Kings 14:12
1611 every man to their tents
1382 ech man in to his ...