This is the article:
It claims that there is no evidence (i.e. a conclusive demonstration) that the SARS-CoV-2 pathogenic virus has been properly isolated as per either the Koch's or Rivers' postulates and no symptom specific to Covid-19 has been demonstrated in animals that have been infected with a SARS-CoV-2 isolates.
I like to know if the reasoning and the claims made in this article are valid. What's misleading here in the way the argument is presented? The article gives a number of references and seems well-written. It seems like there has been a lot of time invested in this article.