8

There are claims that not just the event itself, but the time of the first moon landing coincided with a prophecy about the moon in the Qur'an.

This page claims a match with the year 1969:

One of the most important among the signs is in the first verse of the sura “The Moon” (Qamar). The number of verses to be counted from this verse to the end of the Quran is 1389. The year 1389 in the Muslim calendar corresponds to the year 1969 in the Gregorian calendar. And the year 1969 was the year when man landed on the moon for the first time.

Another one claims a match with the exact time of take-off from the moon:

A very interesting prophecy relates to the moon landing (which occurred in 1969), is it possible The Quran predicted this? Well, judge for yourself by considering the following information – Chapter 54 of The Quran is entitled “The Moon” and starts right away by giving us news about the splitting of the moon as a sign that the end of the world is drawing close.

“The moon has split and the hour has drawn closer” (The Quran, 54:1)

When did the prophecy come to pass?

To answer that, one must keep the prophecy in mind: “The moon has split.” This is a metaphor. Parts of the moon have left its surface. They no longer are part of the moon. So, the prophecy does not refer to the landing on the moon or to the first step made by Neil Armstrong but to the fact that Armstrong and Aldrin collected 21 kilograms of lunar rocks to bring back to earth. The prophecy was fulfilled at the very moment the astronauts left the moon in the lunar module containing 21 kilograms of rocks that had belonged to the moon. This can be confirmed by checking the definition of “split” in any dictionary, among the definitions given by Dictionary.com are – “to divide, disunite, separate”

The date this prophecy came to pass was on July 21 1969. The moment the prophecy was fulfilled is confirmed by the hour of departure of the lunar module, which left the lunar surface at 17:54:1 (Universal Time) or 1:54:1 (EDT) and as you have seen above, verse [54:1] is the verse that deals with the prophecy.

Still not convinced? Lets read the following verses after (54:1) –

“The moon has split and the hour has drawn closer. Then they saw a great miracle; but they turned away and said, “Old magic.” They disbelieved, followed their opinions, and adhered to their old traditions.” (The Quran, from 54:1 to 54:3)

Here, the author of The Quran specifically states – “the moon has split”, then people will see “a great miracle”, yet they still “disbelieved”. Could the “great miracle” be the fulfillment of prophecy?

Is there any truth behind those claims? Did the verse numbers and the moon landing really line up this way?

@IMSoP made a valid objection in the comments. Here's a Qur'an from 1649: https://archive.org/details/alcoranofmahomet00dury. The Chapter of the Moon is at 54. The rest of the order seems same too. Though I haven't checked and compared all of them. Feel free to do so.

  • 16
    I'm not sure what we can check here. Even if the facts about the verse numbering were true, whether or not these constitute a prophecy or a coincidence is a matter of opinion. – DJClayworth May 4 '16 at 18:44
  • 5
    How acceptable is numerology in Islam? I have a feeling it's highly associated with occultism, much like in Judaism and Christianity. – fredsbend May 4 '16 at 19:23
  • 13
    With an implicit, rather than explicit, prophecy like this date and time, how would we know the difference between it getting the year right, or missing by one? That depends on if you count the verse in question or not when counting to the end of the Quran. Or what if it got it completely wrong, because the years were supposed to be counted from the beginning of the Quran, instead? If the idea is "we don't know in advance what it means, until we find a coincidence to match to it", then Shakespeare might be just as prophetic, in that limited sense. – Dan Getz May 4 '16 at 20:12
  • 10
    A prediction is only valid if it's made BEFORE the event comes to pass. If nobody said "the moon landing will happen in 1969" or something equivalent, it's not a prediction. Tell me, did a sect of Muslims go, "Yeah, saw that coming a mile off"? It's easy to connect the dots after the event and say, "Hey, the Qur'an says something similar!" But did those dots connect before the event? – PointlessSpike May 5 '16 at 7:35
  • 9
    SpiderRico: just curious, how would you respond to a question "Did Qur'an incorrectly predict moon landing date?", that was based on the number of verses between the start of the book and this chapter not matching the year of the moon landing? Why is the number of verses after this chapter a prediction, and not the number of verses before it? – user56reinstatemonica8 May 5 '16 at 12:32
7

Indeed, one can verify that the number of verses counted excluding the first one are exactly 1389. You can verify this using any online quran.

Also, the year 1389 in islamic calendar happens to be the year 1969. This can be verified using any online converter

However, this is merely a coincidence:

1) There is no clear evidence that the chapters of Quran were numbered at the time of the prophet Mohammed. At his time people used chapter names (it is actually easier to use names than numbers). In fact, the Quran was not assembled into a book until after the death of Mohammad; at his time people used to memorize the Quran. See: The origin of the Quran

2) The Quran verse at hand talks about an incident well known by many muslims. It uses the past tense. The writer of the second claim tries to hide this:

Here, the author of The Quran specifically states – “the moon has split”, then people will see “a great miracle”, yet they still “disbelieved”

However, if you read the actual text, it is written in the past tense:

The moon has split and the hour has drawn closer. Then they saw a great miracle; but they turned away and said, “Old magic.” They disbelieved, followed their opinions, and adhered to their old traditions.” (The Quran, from 54:1 to 54:3)

  • "However, if you read the actual text, it is written in the past tense". Abdel Haleem's note on this verse: One of the signs of the Day of Judgement. The Arabic uses the past tense, as if that Day were already here, to help the reader/listener imagine how it will be. Some traditional commentators hold the view that this describes an actual event at the time of the Prophet, but it clearly refers to the end of the world: cf. the same expression with reference to the sky, 55: 37; 84: 1. – SpiderRico Jul 17 '16 at 1:15
  • @mhmd I'm not sure where you got this translation from but it's far from accurate (Arabic is my mother tongue). Quoting from the same website you referenced (quran.com), the translation is: "The Hour has come near, and the moon has split [in two]. And if they see a miracle, they turn away and say, 'Passing magic.'" (54:1 to 54:2) - Note: I'm only commenting on the accuracy of the translation here; I'm not saying that the claim presented in the question is valid. – Ahmed Abdelhameed Jul 16 at 22:02
  • @Ahmed thanks for your comment. The last paragraph is taken from the above text and not from quran.com or any other source. Its purpose is only to show the contradiction the writer has in his own post. But, you are right, the translation itself is also incorrect so thats an additional point against the op. – mhmd Jul 18 at 19:38

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .