It seems to be a commonly-held belief that there is a strong correlation between the use of prescription drugs such as SSRIs and mass-shooters. For instance, this claim:
The overwhelming evidence points to the signal [sic] largest common factor in all of these incidents is the fact that all of the perpetrators were either actively taking powerful psychotropic drugs or had been at some point in the immediate past before they committed their crimes.
Multiple credible scientific studies going back more than a decade, as well as internal documents from certain pharmaceutical companies that suppressed the information show that SSRI drugs [etc.]
Does the evidence support this claim?
If there is a correlation, is there a way to untangle the statistical relevance? For instance, can the use of such drugs among violent offenders be compared to the use among non-violent offenders or other relevant demographic?