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Jun 2, 2019 at 17:40 comment added RonJohn Who's going to ask, "Are black people more likely to commit murders?"
Oct 3, 2018 at 10:47 comment added Owl It should be noted that there are some countries (for example Sweden) who for whatever reasons do not disclose the ethnicity of criminals, e.g. thelocal.se/20180508/… and things like this could very well affect the statistics.
Aug 22, 2018 at 19:16 comment added PoloHoleSet Are we asking if (A) any given white person has a greater chance of being a mass murderer than any given non-white person, on average? Or (B) for any given mass murder, is it more likely to be a white person or non-white?
Oct 7, 2017 at 3:26 comment added user11643 The best writeup I've seen on the issue. Good reasoning and points to statistical data.
Oct 4, 2017 at 17:52 comment added gnasher729 In the most recent case, the shooter owned over 40 guns. That's a lot of money spent on guns. Poor people cannot afford to own 40 guns. I wonder whether that affects statistics.
Jan 3, 2017 at 21:24 comment added PoloHoleSet I like that, in the answers, a distinction is being made between "are white people more likely to commit," vs "are mass murders more likely to be committed by" - VERY different concepts.
Dec 31, 2016 at 11:33 history edited Sklivvz
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Dec 31, 2016 at 11:27 history edited Sakib Arifin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 29, 2016 at 19:45 answer added Chloe timeline score: 23
Oct 5, 2015 at 20:38 comment added Himarm @stephen the answer below basically agrees with your thought. about 71% were white, and the average white population is at about 70%, so it appears that we have mass murderers in proportion to race.
Oct 4, 2015 at 20:17 comment added stephen is it fair to say that in a country where the population is mostly white most serial killers will be white? In other words, the number of people of a specific population reflects the makeup of the population as a whole.
Jun 4, 2014 at 21:46 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackSkeptic/status/474306154806247424
May 31, 2014 at 4:18 vote accept Casebash
May 31, 2014 at 3:02 answer added user5582 timeline score: 37
May 31, 2014 at 1:51 review Close votes
Jun 1, 2014 at 13:00
May 31, 2014 at 1:29 history edited Oddthinking
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May 31, 2014 at 1:29 comment added Oddthinking I've added the United-States tag for two reasons: (1) the linked reference talks about white male privilege in the context the "sense of belonging", which is not going to apply (as strongly) in countries where caucasians are in the minority, so I don't think the claim is global. (2) On the other hand, if the claim is intended to be global, there is a huge confounding factor of in which countries the populace have access to rampage weapons.
May 30, 2014 at 23:42 history edited Casebash CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 30, 2014 at 23:35 comment added Casebash @LarryOBrien: Wikipedia lists 52/75 or 69%. According to Wikipedia, the white population is 72% or 64% excluding Hispanics who identify as white. An effect that modest could be simply due to modelling. We know that people are more likely to copy people similar to them and numerically most of the perpetrators are white and the media explicitly makes this link
May 30, 2014 at 23:32 history edited Casebash CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 30, 2014 at 23:30 history edited user5582 CC BY-SA 3.0
made unambiguous
May 30, 2014 at 23:25 comment added Casebash @Articuno: The claim is that white men are more likely to commit murder. The men part is backed by statistics, but I haven't seen statistics justifying the racial component
May 30, 2014 at 23:22 comment added Casebash @Geobits: I don't have a specific definition in mind, I'm just interested in whether the claim is valid under any reasonable definition
May 30, 2014 at 20:01 comment added Is Begot How do you define "mass murder"? For example, the FBI definition is "murdering four or more persons during an event with no cooling-off period between the murders", but others have used 6 killings as a basis, etc. Also, the Wiki link in above comment is for "rampage killings", which has a different definition, partially based on injury count in addition to deaths. Mass murder perpetrated by a nation/state may also be counted differently than those carried out by individuals.
May 30, 2014 at 17:30 comment added Larry OBrien I know the site frowns on Wikipedia as a primary source, so I'm making this a comment. This graph suggests that, in the United States, it has been true in recent decades: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
May 30, 2014 at 14:52 history asked Casebash CC BY-SA 3.0