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In book The Global Bell Curve by Richard Lynn, there is the following table:

Herrnstein and Murray addressed the problem of how far the lower socioeconomic status and earnings of blacks and Hispanics can be explained by their lower IQs. These analyses were confined to men and were conducted for socioeconomic status by matching whites, blacks, and Hispanics for IQ. First, they took all those with an IQ of 117 (the average IQ of those in SES 1), and looked at the percentages of those with IQs of 117 who were in SES 1. They found that blacks with an IQ of 117 were much more likely than whites to be in SES 1 (26 percent as compared with 10 percent), and Hispanics with an IQ of 117 were also more likely than whites to be in SES 1 ( 16 percent as compared with 10 percent) (p. 321). The apparent advantage of blacks and Hispanics for socioeconomic status did not, however, hold for earnings. For these Herrnstein and Murray (p. 321) matched whites, blacks, and Hispanics for IQ by taking all those with an IQ of 100 and examined their earnings. They found that whites earned slightly more than Hispanics, while Hispanics earned slightly more than blacks. The differences however were very small in so far as all three racial groups with IQs of 100 earned between $25,000 and $25,600 a year. These results are shown in Table 1.2.

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It claims that in the US, those with an IQ of 117 all earn roughly the same amount of money on average, regardless of their race. Is this true?

Note: The actual claim in the book may not be notable. But claims that

  1. Certain groups are smarter
  2. The smarter groups make more money

are very common among anyone not progressive. I just want the truth

Samples https://www.reddit.com/r/aznidentity/comments/nnzt47/percent_of_students_in_2020_with_a_total_sat/

https://www.brookings.edu/articles/race-gaps-in-sat-scores-highlight-inequality-and-hinder-upward-mobility/

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    On Skeptics.SE, we require claims to be notable - they must be widely believed. It is hard to show that, so we accept a proxy of being widely seen or read. A popular article is perfect. Sometimes people confuse this meaning of notabiity with meaning the claim must come from a reliable source. That is not required. I have deleted such comments from this question, to avoid further confusing new users.
    – Oddthinking
    Commented Aug 3 at 14:00
  • Comments discussing whether it is appropriate to have questions about claims that support racism have been moved to chat; please do not continue the discussion here. Before posting a comment below this one, please review the purposes of comments. Comments that do not request clarification or suggest improvements usually belong as an answer, on Skeptics Meta, or in Skeptics Chat. Comments continuing discussion may be removed.
    – Oddthinking
    Commented Aug 18 at 7:28

1 Answer 1

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Given the downvotes and discussion I want to start by making clear that the quote and screenshot from Lynn's book claim to be simply reporting the findings by Hernstein and Murray from their much more notable and controversial 1994 book, The Bell Curve. For a general overview of the many reasons this book is consider to be deeply flawed by most experts, the Wikipedia article is a good place to start. Without diving in to this controversy on which many books have been written, I'll just mention two key points. a) Their book was not subjected to peer review. b) No standard IQ test is universally accepted as a meaningful measure of general intelligence, if such a thing exists.

That said, Lynn's table 1.2 accurately summarizes data included in two of Hernstein and Murray's tables (pp. 322-323). Do these data points mean what they say it means, and can their findings be replicated?

I was only able to find one study (Cawley et al. 1997) that directly and explicitly looks at this question, and its findings were quite different. Using a more robust measure of intelligence and doing systematic regression analysis of how it interacts with career choice, earnings and race, they conclude that "the returns to 'g' [IQ] differ significantly across race and gender; payment is not made for 'ability' alone."

So while the data points in the question are probably factually reported, they should not be considered reliable evidence of the claim they are alleged to support.

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  • That Cawley paper is also available separately on NBER: nber.org/papers/w5645 Commented Aug 18 at 5:31
  • They also have a later review-ish paper sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/S0927537101000392 Aside from race correlations [or lack thereof], other papers find that above a certain income threshold the relationship breaks down .academic.oup.com/esr/article/39/5/820/7008955 Commented Aug 18 at 10:06
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    I actually found another paper on the US concluding that "Relative returns to cognitive performance vary with race, ethnicity and sex." sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/S0927537117303329 by a diff [AFAICT] set of authors. But all these papers on the US flog the NLSY79 data it seems [for lack of other probably Commented Aug 18 at 10:23
  • Actually the latter paper uses "data through 2014", so having followed the same cohort for a bit longer. They seem to [weirdly?] focus only on "relative returns", which makes it hard to tell if they detected any absolute difference[s]. OTOH the paper was published in the same Labour Economics journal as the last Cawley et al. paper I found. And according to Wikipedia, the last author of that paper [Ruhm] did co-author at least one paper with Cawley, so their research groups might not be as disjoint as I previously thought. Commented Aug 18 at 10:50
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    @pipe Hernstein and Murray are absolutely making claims about general intelligence based on IQ. All three of the sources I linked to, which includes their own book, make this explicit. I wouldn't have brought it up otherwise.
    – Brian Z
    Commented Aug 19 at 0:22

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