The Guardian writes:
A local court in Pakistan has sentenced Imran Khan, the country’s former prime minister, and his wife to seven years each in a case related to their marriage, which it declared “un-Islamic”. [...]
After his conviction in the “iddat” case for not waiting 40 days to remarry after Bibi’s divorce, Khan told the reporters the case was created to “humiliate and disgrace” him and his wife.
“This marks the first instance in history where a case related to iddat has been initiated,” Khan said.
So, is it true that cases of iddat were not prosecuted before? (I'm assuming Khan meant the first case in Pakistani history. But if it somehow turns out they were never prosecuted in Islamic history...)