Of the 253 individuals with pre-infection VitD levels, 133 (52.5%) had a level less than 20 ng/mL, 36 (14.2%) had 20 to less than 30 ng/mL, 44 (17.3%) had 30 to less than 40 ng/mL, and 40 (15.8%) had 40 ng/mL or greater (Table 1). Mortality among patients with sufficient VitD levels was 2.3%, in contrast to the VitD deficient group’s 25.6% mortality rate (p-value<0.001)
They also claim that they examined if the vitamin D defiency was a symptom of another illness which could have lead to these increased mortality rates and found that this was not the case.
They apparently linked other things to high mortality rates as well but nothing had a p-value this significant. Is this a case of trying to measure a lot of things and try to see what sticks (If anyone could tell me the name of this phenomenon as well that would be appreciated) or is this a robust study?