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I think by "Hindu" the interviewee referred to religion, not the gene. I think, he tried to tell us that at one point or another each and every Subcontinental Muslims' ancestors were "religiously" Hindus.

Do "all" present-day Subcontinental Muslims have a "Hindu" ancestry?

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    Hindu precedes Islam by many years. This isn't exactly a revelation if true.
    – fredsbend
    Aug 20, 2020 at 14:15
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    @fredsbend, Hindu precedes Islam by many years. This isn't exactly a revelation if true. --- that doesn't prove that all Muslims were Hindus at some point. For instance, ethnic Turkish Muslims were never Hindus. Many ethnic Turkish people migrated to the Subcontinent from Asia minor and central Asia. Many people were Jorastrians who migrated to the Subcontinent.
    – user366312
    Aug 20, 2020 at 14:16
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    Without evidence of major Muslim migrations (were there any?), all might be hyperbolic, but most is probably expected.
    – fredsbend
    Aug 20, 2020 at 14:23
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    @user366312 If you believe you've found the answer to your question, please consider posting it as an answer.
    – F1Krazy
    Aug 20, 2020 at 14:54
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    Hinduism isn't the only religion on the subcontinent that predates Islam. Buddhism and Jainism do too. Aug 20, 2020 at 17:52

1 Answer 1

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The precise claim is still quite vague to me. What exactly is meant by "Hindu ancestry"? It isn't like there is some specific Hindu gene we can test for, as far as I can tell. If the details are spelled out anywhere in the linked resources, I'm not seeing it.

That said, there is some relevant genetic research. In particular I would point to "Traces of sub-Saharan and Middle Eastern lineages in Indian Muslim populations", published in Nature, 2009. The key conclusion:

Overall, our results support a model according to which the spread of Islam in India was predominantly cultural conversion associated with minor but still detectable levels of gene flow from outside, primarily from Iran and Central Asia, rather than directly from the Arabian Peninsula.

Older studies I'm seeing like this of specific Muslim populations within India seem to support the same conclusion.

So all this really tells us is that on the one hand, the population of the Indian subcontinent shares a lot of common ancestry, but on the other, Muslim populations may also share some distinct patterns of ancestry unto themselves. This is relevant context for the claims you are asking about, but I would emphasize that the claim as stated in the question is perhaps more vague than wrong. Just one key question that would need to be clarified is at what point in history do certain genes become "Hindu genes", if any such concept even makes sense at all? The links you provide don't seem to address this.

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  • I think by "Hindu" the interviewee referred to religion, not the gene. I think, he tried to tell us that at one point or another each and every Subcontinental Muslims' ancestors were "religiously" Hindus.
    – user366312
    Aug 20, 2020 at 14:05
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    @user366312 As it says in my answer, there are "detectable levels of gene flow from outside". But there is no evidence to suggest that those outside Muslim communities arrived in the subcontinent and kept themselves separate for generations and generations. Of course there may be a few individuals who came a few generations ago and never intermarried... if so, would that count? This is another example of why the claim so far is too vague to prove or disprove.
    – Brian Z
    Aug 20, 2020 at 14:24
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    That's fine, but does the video provide any evidence to suggest that all Muslim Siddis in Pakistan have no ancestry which might have been Hindu? If not, it's not very relevant to the claim as it is currently stated.
    – Brian Z
    Aug 20, 2020 at 14:54
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    @Brian Z "Trillions" of ancestors? If there were a billion people each generation, it would take 1000 generations to get a trillion people. At 30 years per generation, that would be 30k years. Aug 22, 2020 at 5:13
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    @Accumulation Regardless, my point stands.
    – Brian Z
    Aug 22, 2020 at 21:00

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