The Wikipedia page Yellow badge says:

The practice of wearing special markings in order to distinguish Jews and other non-Muslims (Dhimmis) in Muslim-dominated countries seems to have been introduced by Umayyad Caliph Umar II in early 8th century. The practice was reissued and reinforced by Caliph Al-Mutawakkil (847–61), subsequently remaining in force for centuries.[.2][3]

Source [3] refers to Jewish Virtual Library:

The introduction of a mark to distinguish persons not belonging to the religious faith of the majority did not originate in Christendom, where it was later radically imposed, but in Islam. It seems that Caliph Omar II (717–20), not Omar I, as is sometimes stated, was the first ruler to order that every non-Muslim, the dhimmī, should wear vestimentary distinctions (called giyār, i.e., distinguishing marks) of a different color for each minority group. The ordinance was unequally observed, but it was reissued and reinforced by Caliph al-Mutawakkil (847–61).

Source [.2] is,

Antisemitism: A Historical Encyclopedia of Prejudice and Persecution, Volume 1 By Richard S. Levy P:779

It says:

In the Muslim world, specific markings were used to distinguish and humiliate individuals not belonging to the Islamic faith but dwelling within Muslim-dominated lands. The practice seems to have been introduced by the caliph Omar Il in the early eighth century, although it was unevenly applied throughout the Middle Ages.

Was a practice of making non-Muslims wear special markings introduced by Umar II?

  • 1
    The earliest mention of this that I could find is The Jews of Islam Updated Edition (p25)</sub>. The author gives two sources, but they are not listed in the free preview and I do not have full access to it. Older sources - eg here - mention other discrimination by Omar II (among them rules about clothing). – tim Feb 18 '17 at 12:42
  • 4
    Is there any reason to doubt the claim that Umar II required Jews to be marked which seems to be well documented? Or does the claim being investigated is was he the first ruler to do so? – Ofir Feb 19 '17 at 8:46
  • @Ofir well documented? Than show me that. Your argument is a argument by assertion fallacy. – Sakib Arifin Feb 19 '17 at 12:39
  • 6
    You have a source in your question, what is wrong with what "Antisemitism: A Historical Encyclopedia of Prejudice and Persecution" gives? Also, if you scroll to the end of the Jewish Virtual Library article, you will see their sources as well, what is wrong with those sources? More over, it seems that the main point of debate at the sources is whether the Pact of Umar should be attributed to Umar I or Umar II, so is your question about Jews wearing special identification, or about who enacted this decree? – SIMEL Feb 19 '17 at 13:53
  • I edited out two problematic parts out of the question. First there is no common practice ("the practice") of making Jews wear a symbol. It is something despicable that happened in history ("a practice") multiple, presumably unrelated times. Secondly, while the original intent of the question might have been to ask about antisemitism, the actual claim you uncovered is about non-Muslims in general, so let's ask about the actual claim. – Sklivvz Feb 19 '17 at 17:46

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