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The Daily Wire has a 2016 article that claims that women are not victims of pay discrimination.

The general topic is covered by a relation question here: Are women underpaid relative to men?

However, one more specific claim that is made is that single women without children in major cities earn much more than men.

As noted by the Daily Wire in April, analysis of the Census Bureau’s American Community Survey reveals that “single, childless women earn more than their male counterparts of the same age in major cities across the United States.” Per Time:

[A]ccording to a new analysis of 2,000 communities by a market research company, in 147 out of 150 of the biggest cities in the U.S., the median full-time salaries of young women are 8% higher than those of the guys in their peer group. In two cities, Atlanta and Memphis, those women are making about 20% more. This squares with earlier research from Queens College, New York, that had suggested that this was happening in major metropolises. But the new study suggests that the gap is bigger than previously thought, with young women in New York City, Los Angeles and San Diego making 17%, 12% and 15% more than their male peers, respectively. And it also holds true even in reasonably small areas like the Raleigh-Durham region and Charlotte in North Carolina (both 14% more), and Jacksonville, Fla. (6%).

I am looking for empirical evidence as to whether young childless women outperform their male counterparts in earnings.

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    Is this a duplicate of: skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/908/… – Oddthinking Jan 20 '17 at 10:44
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    @Oddthinking I do not think it's a duplicate since I am asking for scientific evidence and the answers to your linked question do not have links to scientific papers. The doubtful claims in my view are those denying that young women earn more, and/or on the other hand those denying the existence of an overall wage gap. – Arrow Jan 20 '17 at 10:53
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    It wouldn't be surprising if young childless women in western countries earn more on average than an average of all men of the same age, because having children early is correlated with low income linked demographics like lower education levels. It'd be a skewed comparison: a sample of all young men including the poorest, compared against a sample of young women that removes many of the poorest and is therefore somewhat skewed towards middle and higher income demographics. You'd have to somehow match the young women with children with equivalent-demographic men and remove them from the sample – user568458 Jan 20 '17 at 14:47
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    @user568458 I don't see your point. man can be childless too... – Bakuriu Jan 21 '17 at 20:50
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    @jamesqf It's called cherry picking. – ReasonablySkeptical Jan 23 '17 at 13:44

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