https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/a/36111/32459 says:

The name Muhammad actually appears in the Qur'an only four times, and in three of those instances it could be used as a title – the "praised one" or "chosen one" – rather than as a proper name. Source: Did Muhammad Exist? (2012), p. 17

it is from http://www.americanthinker.com/articles/2012/04/inventing_muhammad.html

is it true?

closed as off-topic by Sklivvz Dec 7 '16 at 21:51

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "Skeptics Stack Exchange is for challenging unreferenced notable claims, pseudoscience and biased results. This question might not challenge a claim, or the claim identified might not be notable." – Sklivvz
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  • Let's avoid self referential questions, they are not notable. – Sklivvz Dec 7 '16 at 21:52
  • @Sklivvz The information is from American Thinker though. Doesn't that meet the notability requirement? – called2voyage Dec 7 '16 at 22:00
  • @called2voyage But isn't Sadiq's point that is isn't actually in the American Thinker article. He may be just asking if the article really says that. – DavePhD Dec 7 '16 at 22:11
  • 3
    Occurences of Muhammad in the Quran are trivial to search for. – DJClayworth Dec 7 '16 at 23:12
  • 1
    @DJClayworth "and in three of those instances could be used as a title the praised one or chosen one" is not trivial, however. – called2voyage Dec 7 '16 at 23:18

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