In "The Anatomy of Human Destructiveness", Fromm claims Hitler was "a clinical case of necrophilia" in Chapter 13.

Is Fromme justified in this?

Is this a redefinition of the term Necrophilia?

Is there any evidence that hitler was obsessed with death?

closed as off-topic by March Ho, tim, Avery, EnergyNumbers, pericles316 Aug 31 '16 at 13:35

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  • I get a very psudoscience feeling from this, but it worth the ask. Apologies if the formats wrong or this is more suitable to philosophy or another stack. – pjp Aug 27 '16 at 23:39
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    What definition of the term necrophilia does Fromme use? – Brythan Aug 28 '16 at 0:09
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    What sort of evidence would be convincing either way? Fromme did not conduct a personal examination of Hitler, and diagnosing celebrities without one is widely considered unethical. He spends a chapter on his own version of Freudian analysis to support his claim, but it seems largely unfalsifiable speculation. – Oddthinking Aug 28 '16 at 3:26
  • That might be violating the Goldwater Rule – user30557 Aug 28 '16 at 4:10
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    Godwin's Law and the Goldwater Rule. – Oddthinking Aug 28 '16 at 11:59

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