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I recently noticed critics of our financial system state that the amount of debts is always equal to the amount of debts. Is this true? I have so far only found German-language sources for this claim, seemingly based on the opinion of a single person, naming it the "fundamental theorem of economics". See here or here. I however can't find any foundation for this claim in economic theory.

closed as off-topic by matt_black, George Chalhoub, Sklivvz Oct 20 '15 at 23:19

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    Yes, the amount of debts is always equal to the amount of debts. – Zack Oct 20 '15 at 20:47
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    If this is a question about definitions and theorems within economic theory, rather than anything taking place in the real world, I don't think it's a good fit for Skeptics. Economics.SE may be better. – Nate Eldredge Oct 20 '15 at 21:47
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    This isn't really a skeptical claim at all but a question about the definitions of terms in accounting or economics. As such it doesn't really fit here. – matt_black Oct 20 '15 at 21:47
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is a question about accounting or economics definitions not a skeptical claim. – matt_black Oct 20 '15 at 21:49

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