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I was reading about the Brazilian state of Amazonas when I came across this sentence: "Today, indigenous people do not exercise sovereignty over any part of the New World" - Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Amazonas_(Brazilian_state)#The_politics_of_dominion (4th sentence in the paragraph)

I don't know about Brazil but I thought that at least a few Native American tribes have reservations in the US - and I thought those reservations were soveriegn land - American law does not apply. Is this just a popular myth? Or does that Wiki page need to be corrected?

closed as off-topic by Sklivvz May 20 '15 at 12:14

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "Skeptics Stack Exchange is for challenging unreferenced notable claims, pseudoscience and biased results. This question might not challenge a claim, or the claim identified might not be notable." – Sklivvz
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  • I am closing this as non-notable. We can't verify every sentence on wikipedia, there has to be evidence that enough people believe this to make it worthwhile. – Sklivvz May 20 '15 at 12:14
  • Ok, can we find an example relating to the US, then? It would also help clarify the context. – Sklivvz May 20 '15 at 14:15
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    You could ask this question on the Politics site. Asking if any Native Reservations have full sovereignty should be well on topic there. Probably need a separate question for each country. – DJClayworth May 20 '15 at 15:39
  • I agree you would need a separate question for each country, since in Canada its similar that they have a limited sovereignty but the specifics would be different than the US, or any other North or South American Country that still has a indigenous population. – Ian Gallant May 20 '15 at 15:59
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    @nomenagentis I'm pretty sure the 'New World' generally refers to the Americas - North, Central, South America & the Caribbean - which is why I found this sentence in an article about Brazil. – Jay May 20 '15 at 20:02

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