Timeline for Fasting for 40 days - is it possible?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Aug 2, 2018 at 19:15 | answer | added | Jamie Clinton | timeline score: 0 | |
Aug 2, 2018 at 18:26 | comment | added | PoloHoleSet | Very lawyer-esque language by Moses there. "neither did eat bread or drink water" does not necessarily rule out leg of lamb washed down with wine. | |
Dec 10, 2014 at 22:57 | comment | added | Himarm | This instance of fasting, was to show that Moses while in the presence of god needed no food or water, for gods presence himself sustained him, later when he comes down from the mountain the people could not look upon moses as he glowed and had to be covered, however most of the other instances of fasting in the bible did still include water, such as jesus's fasting in matthew as well as john the baptists fasting. so it was literally ment to show an impossible situation that he lived through, while the others were about simple discipline | |
Jan 26, 2012 at 21:17 | comment | added | Tomer Vromen | @DavidMurdoch: the hebrew text literally says "I did not eat bread, and I did not eat water". It is supposed to be understood as meaning all types of food and drink. But the words for water and bread have only their usual meaning (i.e. water is just water, not other liquids). | |
Aug 25, 2011 at 15:55 | answer | added | Rincewind42 | timeline score: 7 | |
Aug 23, 2011 at 7:49 | answer | added | user unknown | timeline score: 12 | |
Aug 23, 2011 at 6:40 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackSkeptic/status/105892157302390784 | ||
Aug 22, 2011 at 15:20 | comment | added | David Murdoch | The NKJ translation to "neither did eat bread nor drink water" does not necessarily mean "did not eat or drink anything" (but...I don't know Hebrew so I can't tell you if "water" literally means "water" or "water, wine, goat's milk, and all other liquids."). Also, I know someone who did the no meals thing for 40 days; he looked terrible at the end. | |
Aug 22, 2011 at 12:19 | comment | added | ESultanik | According to some old (although not biblically old) interpretations of Jewish law, it was considered fine to chew a food as long as one spit everything out before swallowing, including one's saliva. I am not sure, but it might be possible that one could get some amount of nutrition/hydration from chewing food. | |
Aug 22, 2011 at 12:04 | comment | added | StackExchange saddens dancek | The better-known Bible passage featuring a 40-day fast is the one where Jesus fasts, in Matthew 4:2. | |
Aug 22, 2011 at 11:55 | answer | added | Russell McMahon | timeline score: 31 | |
Aug 22, 2011 at 11:24 | history | asked | Fitri | CC BY-SA 3.0 |