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May 2 at 17:43 comment added DavePhD Frederick II was trying to stop people from buying coffee for economic reasons. He started his war on coffee the year before Voltaire died, brookstonbeerbulletin.com/… I think he was just biased and exaggerating,
May 2 at 17:38 comment added Schwern @DavePhD I did a quick search on a hunch and found that and yes, modern French speakers will refer to a "Demitasse Tasse À Café". While this is just a quick search and I can't fully extrapolate modern French to 18th century aristocratic French, one also can't assume people are being precise in their language.
May 2 at 11:07 comment added DavePhD 4 oz I understand, just not 2 oz
May 2 at 4:41 comment added Schwern @DavePhD As explained in the answer, "a cup of coffee" is not speaking about a measurement nor describing a specific style of cup. In modern French "tasse à café" is not 8 oz but closer to 4. I would expect 18th century people and "cups" to be even less exact than we are now. Whatever Fred meant, they did not mean the modern 8 oz cup we imagine.
May 2 at 1:53 comment added DavePhD How could it be 50 demitasses if the original French says “tasses”?
Apr 30 at 19:13 history answered Schwern CC BY-SA 4.0