Timeline for Are US workers legally required to pay income taxes?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
10 events
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| Nov 3, 2018 at 16:01 | comment | added | supercat | @WhatRoughBeast: If e.g. someone rents a property to a relative at significantly below market rate, the IRS may charge the landlord income tax as though the property were rented at close to market rate on the premise that the transaction essentially combines a near-market-rate rental and a (non-deductible) gift of the difference between market and actual rental price. | |
| Nov 3, 2018 at 4:49 | comment | added | WhatRoughBeast | @supercat - I'm pretty sure you're confusing imputed and undeclared income. Imputed income is a benefit which has a "reasonable" market value, such as a company allowing your children to be covered by your (company) insurance. The value of that service is indeed taxable, but only if you receive it. The IRS is hard on getting taxes for stuff you did get, but they don't normally make stuff up. The "should have received" income is harder to parse. Are you talking, for instance, about owning a house which costs too much for your stated income? | |
| Nov 1, 2018 at 20:24 | comment | added | WhatRoughBeast | @Oddthinking - Done for the two which actually take some work. | |
| Nov 1, 2018 at 20:22 | history | edited | WhatRoughBeast | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Nov 1, 2018 at 5:24 | comment | added | Oddthinking♦ | Any chance you could provide links to the pages you quote so we can check them in context? Thanks. | |
| Nov 1, 2018 at 0:00 | comment | added | WhatRoughBeast | @supercat - I am not a (tax) lawyer, nor do I play one on television. In other words, I have no idea. | |
| Oct 31, 2018 at 16:47 | comment | added | CramerTV | Good point about the exact wording and the legal definitions of such. That we must parse individual words to understand each other is one of the big reasons we tend to talk past each other. Although, usually, the person making the claim doesn't try to elaborate and explain. | |
| Oct 31, 2018 at 16:36 | comment | added | supercat | Have any arguments been made in court about imputed income (income the IRS thinks one "should' have received, without regard for whether one actually received it)? In many cases, the fact that one should have received income may be taken as prima facie evidence that one did receive it, but if someone can provide evidence that they did not receive actual income, even if they willfully acted to avoid receiving it, would the foregone ability to have received income be considered "income derived from any source"? | |
| Oct 31, 2018 at 15:50 | history | edited | WhatRoughBeast | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Oct 31, 2018 at 15:44 | history | answered | WhatRoughBeast | CC BY-SA 4.0 |