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Jun 17, 2020 at 9:41 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Mar 6, 2018 at 0:07 answer added Simon B timeline score: 7
Mar 5, 2018 at 14:22 answer added Schmuddi timeline score: 17
Mar 4, 2018 at 13:17 comment added matt_black @Oddthinking I think we agree: the claim that women have physiologically different vision is astonishing but requires very careful experiments to prove. This will be important in any good answer.
Mar 4, 2018 at 13:11 comment added Oddthinking @matt_black: I understand your point, but find the difference in the questions to be huge. That women in Western cultures tend to spend the effort to learn more names for colours than men is a prosaic claim and in keeping with my experience. That human sexual dimorphism includes that women are more sensitive to differences in colour frequencies than men is astonishing to me, and I would demand high-quality evidence.
Mar 4, 2018 at 1:29 history tweeted twitter.com/StackSkeptic/status/970108864472535042
Mar 4, 2018 at 0:50 comment added matt_black @Oddthinking I think the issue of whether women are culturally or physiologically better at distinguishing colours is something for an answer not the claim. Though the clear intent of the claim is that the effect is physiological, some of the possible experiments to test it might be affected by cultural issues. So any analysis of observations needs to take the into account.
Mar 3, 2018 at 23:09 comment added Oddthinking @matt_black: Please consider adding some other forms of this claim. I am concerned that the formulation in this particular claim ("can distinguish") doesn't separate the different issues of "eyes can physically distinguish between two similar shades" and "have been culturally conditioned to care to distinguish between two similar shades".
Mar 3, 2018 at 23:04 history edited Oddthinking CC BY-SA 3.0
Cite more of the claim for context.
Mar 3, 2018 at 11:48 history asked matt_black CC BY-SA 3.0