Timeline for Would humans be more advanced if the Dark Ages never happened?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
16 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 16, 2020 at 17:43 | comment | added | user11643 | Dark ages is a cultural description, just as the Renaissance which alleviated it. It's use refers to cleanliness, religion, superstition, politics, economics and economic systems, etc, but rarely to technology. | |
| Feb 25, 2013 at 0:02 | comment | added | Muz | The European "Dark Ages" (6th-13th centuries) also coincided with the Arabian/Islamic Golden Age. So it was certainly not dark for the rest of the world; there were substantial social/economic/scientific reforms in the Mid East/North Africa. See Rashidun, Ottoman, Abbasid Caliphates. The Eastern Roman Empire was absorbed into Rashidun and Ottoman Caliphates.. it was not controlled by barbarians. | |
| Aug 26, 2011 at 15:58 | history | edited | Mad Scientist♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited title
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| S Jun 2, 2011 at 1:41 | history | suggested | Gustavo Mori | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Spel checked 'effected' into 'affected'
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| Jun 2, 2011 at 1:01 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Jun 2, 2011 at 1:41 | |||||
| Jun 1, 2011 at 21:30 | answer | added | Peter Turner | timeline score: -6 | |
| May 9, 2011 at 0:27 | comment | added | crasic | @Lagerbaer IMO "lost knowledge" refers to technology and scientific knowledge that was known in the classical era but was forgotten during the dark ages (to be rediscovered during the renaissance) | |
| May 8, 2011 at 22:33 | history | edited | James | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
explained 'us' and 'we'
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| May 7, 2011 at 18:54 | comment | added | David Thornley | @Lagerbaer: Actually, some knowledge has been recovered from palimpsests and the like, and some was preserved by Arabs and others. It's all complicated, and from what I've seen there was plenty of progress in technology in Europe. | |
| May 6, 2011 at 10:39 | comment | added | apoorv020 | @James:Can you define 'us' and 'we'? | |
| May 5, 2011 at 6:11 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackSkeptic/status/66022161869045760 | ||
| May 4, 2011 at 19:55 | answer | added | DJClayworth | timeline score: 30 | |
| May 4, 2011 at 19:33 | comment | added | Lagerbaer | Another problem that makes this question vague is that it is impossible to know what knowledge was lost in the dark ages, because otherwise it wouldn't have been lost... | |
| May 4, 2011 at 19:25 | comment | added | Sklivvz | Even if that was true, @Fabian, the Moors did make significant advances that we eventually inherited, for example in mathematics... | |
| May 4, 2011 at 18:26 | comment | added | Mad Scientist♦ | The "what if" parts of the question are somewhat off-topic, they invite too much speculation. I'd focus the question on investigating the claim that there was no significant technological progress happening in the dark ages in europe. | |
| May 4, 2011 at 18:16 | history | asked | James | CC BY-SA 3.0 |