In the 2010 Summary Report of the CDC's National Intimate Partner and Sexual Violence Survey, there are two figures that are surprisingly similar:

In Table 2.1, they claim the 12-month weighted rate of a US woman being raped is 1.1%.

In Table 2.2, they claim the 12-month weighted rate of a US Man being "made to penetrate" is also 1.1%.

It would appear that these risks are comparable.

Despite these figures being similar, the lifetime weighted rates are very different (18.3% versus 4.8%, respectively.)

Are these figures correct, and is it reason to directly compare them?

In the 2010 Summary Report of the CDC's National Intimate Partner and Sexual Violence Survey, there are two figures that are surprisingly similar:

In Table 2.1, they claim the 12-month weighted rate of a US woman being raped is 1.1%.

In Table 2.2, they claim the 12-month weighted rate of a US man being "made to penetrate" is also 1.1%.

It would appear that these risks are comparable.

Despite these figures being similar, the lifetime weighted rates are very different (18.3% versus 4.8%, respectively).

Are these figures correct, and is it reasonable to directly compare them?

http://www.cdc.gov/violenceprevention/pdf/nisvs_report2010-a.pdf

In a discussion on a forum, focusing on pages 18-19 (which correspond to 28-29 of the pdf), one poster commented:

They estimate a 12-month rape rate of 1,270,000 among women and 1,267,000 among men (forced to penetrate).

I can see where those numbers come from; the Forced to Penetrate is on Table 2.2 (at the top of page 29), and the Rape figure is the bolded one at the top of Table 2.1.

But as those don't seem to be intended to be directly comparable, I'm interested in how they're actually related.

Is the above quote a correct reading of the figures, and thus sexual violence figures are actually more similar in the 12 month period than would be commonly assumed, or is this a misreading of the data? In which case, why are the lifetime numbers so different?

In the 2010 Summary Report of the CDC's National Intimate Partner and Sexual Violence Survey, there are two figures that are surprisingly similar:

In Table 2.1, they claim the 12-month weighted rate of a US woman being raped is 1.1%.

In Table 2.2, they claim the 12-month weighted rate of a US Man being "made to penetrate" is also 1.1%.

It would appear that these risks are comparable.

Despite these figures being similar, the lifetime weighted rates are very different (18.3% versus 4.8%, respectively.)

Are these figures correct, and is it reason to directly compare them?

http://www.cdc.gov/violenceprevention/pdf/nisvs_report2010-a.pdf

Thhey estimate a 12-month rape rate of 1,270,000 among women and 1,267,000 among men (forced to penetrate).

Is this a correct reading of the figures, and thus sexual violence figures are actually more similar in the 12 month period than would be commonly assumed, or is this a misreading of the data? In which case, why are the lifetime numbers so different?

http://www.cdc.gov/violenceprevention/pdf/nisvs_report2010-a.pdf

In a discussion on a forum, focusing on pages 18-19 (which correspond to 28-29 of the pdf), one poster commented:

They estimate a 12-month rape rate of 1,270,000 among women and 1,267,000 among men (forced to penetrate).

I can see where those numbers come from; the Forced to Penetrate is on Table 2.2 (at the top of page 29), and the Rape figure is the bolded one at the top of Table 2.1.

But as those don't seem to be intended to be directly comparable, I'm interested in how they're actually related.

Is the above quote a correct reading of the figures, and thus sexual violence figures are actually more similar in the 12 month period than would be commonly assumed, or is this a misreading of the data? In which case, why are the lifetime numbers so different?