Timeline for Does prohibition make illegal drugs less safe?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 10, 2015 at 14:45 | history | edited | Oddthinking♦ |
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| Jan 8, 2014 at 5:25 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackSkeptic/status/420788346391396352 | ||
| Jan 5, 2014 at 10:55 | history | edited | Sklivvz | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jan 5, 2014 at 6:30 | answer | added | Paul | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jan 4, 2014 at 0:28 | comment | added | user5341 | Well, that same argument was (I'll refrain from stipulating on correctly or incorrectly) used related to prohibition on both alcohol (in US and USSR) and abortion. | |
| Jan 3, 2014 at 14:25 | comment | added | vartec | Your question makes assumption that harm caused by drugs is caused by impurities. Which might be true in extreme cases such as krokodril, but that doesn't mean that pure heroin is harmless. | |
| Jan 2, 2014 at 18:55 | answer | added | erb | timeline score: 4 | |
| Jan 2, 2014 at 18:44 | answer | added | Sklivvz | timeline score: 8 | |
| Jan 2, 2014 at 18:40 | answer | added | user5582 | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jan 2, 2014 at 18:38 | comment | added | matt_black | @EbenezerSklivvze actually I think the argument is more nuanced. In an open (i.e. not illegal) market there are incentives to guarantee product quality and legal recourse if quality goods are not provided. When drugs are illegal neither of those mechanisms exist. | |
| Jan 2, 2014 at 18:31 | comment | added | Sklivvz | The argument is that legally selling drugs allows control. | |
| Jan 2, 2014 at 18:26 | history | asked | matt_black | CC BY-SA 3.0 |