Different countries choose radically different ways to regulate peoples' access to alcohol. Some countries and some US states impose a state monopoly on alcohol sale ; others restrict the hours or days when alcohol is available for sale (see Wikipedia for summary).

Relatively recently (well 2005 if that counts as recent) England choose to relax licensing hours making it much easier for pubs or shops to serve alcohol after the traditional closing time of 11pm (wikipedia summary). At the time there were widespread criticisms from the conservative press that this would be a disaster (also see summary on the moral panic that resulted here). Some "experts" are still claiming that it is obvious that restrictions on supply are the most effective way to curb consumption (eg Ian Gilmore's comment here). But, contrary to that expectation, consumption in England has fallen significantly since the relaxation (BBC report).

So the question is what does the worldwide evidence look like? Is there significant evidence that what seems obvious is true: government restrictions limit consumption or harm? Some countries have tried complete prohibition (the USA isn't the only non-islamic state to try this). What was the balance of consumption and harm that led to prohibition being abandoned? Is prohibiting alcohol by age effective? Does restriction by time or supplier work?

NB. I know what seems obvious, but I want to know what the evidence actually says.

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UK consumption may have been affected by other factors, including a ban on smoking indoors in public places, tax increases and a reduction in incomes due to the recession. – Henry Oct 3 '11 at 21:57
consumption in England may also have appeared to have fallen if the "study" determines it mostly or solely on the number of people arrested or ending up in hospitals because of alcohol abuse. If relaxing opening hours leads to people drinking more slowly (but not less) it's possible the number of seriously intoxicated people getting arrested or needing medical attention gets reduced (less drunk drives on the road at any one time, possibly fewer accidents. Lower intake per hour, possibly less cases of alcohol poisoning). – jwenting Oct 4 '11 at 6:32
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prohibition in the US was abandoned because it was ineffective and led to serious crime (the rise of the mob in Chicago and elsewhere can be traced to the rumrunners and illegal distilleries, and made their initial income from running illegal pubs). In a nation where the means of production and transportation aren't controlled, banning alcohol is impossible as it's easy to make yourself, as the US found out, and in a nation with relatively long and open borders smuggling it in is impossible to contain. Try the same on a remote island and it's a lot more effective. – jwenting Oct 4 '11 at 6:35
@jwenting Your first point is probably not true as the consumption stats in england are reliable and based on reliable returns from shops and pubs. But your second point is good and would make part of a good answer if referenced and quantified. How much alcohol did the US consume during prohibition? How much collateral damage? – matt_black Oct 4 '11 at 9:22
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Not only did prohibition fail in the US, but it left the bootleggers enough money to build Las Vegas. – Monkey Tuesday Oct 4 '11 at 14:31
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