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There are likely many factors that lead to the high incidence of violence and homicides in the US, of which loose gun laws may or may not be a factor.

My question is not whether stricter gun laws would reduce incidences of violence, but whether stricter gun laws would reduce casualties.

There is some anecdotal evidence: a stabbing that happened in China just last week resulted in 24 victims, none of whom died -- a result that would be unthinkable had the attempted murderer been carrying a gun. Although the answer should seem to be obvious, it isn't particularly empirical.

So, are there statistics on the number of casualties per violent incident involving and not involving guns (preferably of different kinds -- handguns, hunting rifles, semi-automatics etc.), or in countries with and without strict gun laws?

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Osaka murderer - 8 schoolkids killed, 13 seriously wounded. All with a knife. –  DVK Dec 25 '12 at 20:40
Akihabara massacre - 3 people killed by a truck, 4 by a knife. –  DVK Dec 25 '12 at 20:41
I can only give a hint of direction to seek (lack of) correlation between crime and gun laws: Israel, Switzerland: Gun laws permissive, violent crime minimal. South Africa, Brazil: gun laws permissive, violent crime rampart. Mexico, South Africa: Strict gun laws, violent crime rampart. Japan, Hungary: Strict gun laws, minimal violent crime. –  SF. Dec 25 '12 at 21:43
@SF. South Africa is listed in two categories. –  Andrew Grimm Dec 25 '12 at 22:35
According to the FAQ, Skeptics StackExchange is for researching the evidence behind the claims you hear or read. This question doesn't appear to have any doubtful claims to investigate. Please edit it to reference a notable claim and flag for moderator attention to re-open (or get 5 re-open votes). –  Sklivvz Dec 26 '12 at 10:47
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closed as off topic by Sklivvz Dec 26 '12 at 10:12

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